Praxius Praxius:
Any yet, as I claimed before, those areas were colonized long before Quebec ever was (Territorial speaking and people speaking.)
Who colonized them?
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If settlement in "Canada" began with "New France" then everything I know of Canadian provinces would state that "New France" ceased to exist by the time Canada came about (Upper/Lower)
That's not entirely historically accurate.
New France ceased to exist by 1763 - after that, Canada was British. Upper/Lower Canada don't become political entites till the Constition Act of 1791.
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.... so "Permanent Settlement in Canada" didn't begin with New France.
Yes, it did. Your previous erronous statement doesn't alter anything.
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Those people already were settled in those lands under New France, they just got a new name and new rule....
You mean the French? No, they set up the political entity, established lasting legal, cultural and religious foundations and they were the first to establish permament settlement in Canada. You've provided nothing to alter that history.
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it's a trivial argument for obtaining this thing.... because if one wanted to argue it further back and if one wanted to base this on who was here first, Quebec still loses.
It's not trivial, it's history.
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Maybe the "Artist Formally Known as New France" which is now Quebec, but if his whole argument of possession is based around "Firsts" then his Quebec argument holds no grounds.... because if we're going to base this all around "French" history in the Americas... the Acadians still hold that record above Quebec.
<Sigh> Acadia was encompassed by New France. Acadians were the colonists that dispersed throughout the region after the final attempts at Port Royal permanent settlement failed. And by the last attempt at permanent settlement failed, the city of Quebec was already established (by 1608). Maybe you could explain what permanent colonies existed in "Acadia" that weren't French as of early 1600s (and that had significant impact on the development of Canada).
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The first perm. settlement in Canada, pales in comparison to the historical origins of French in North America, which is in territory that is currently Canada. The French history in NA doesn't begin with Quebec.
It begins with Cartier's royal commissioned (by Francis I) expedition in 1534 and politically, begins in earnest after the arrival of Pierre du Gua de Monts and Samuel de Champlain in 1604. New France, the political entity, was established by settlements at Port Royal (Ile Ste. Croix having been orginal a year before) and then Quebec City (Port Royal also abandoned by 1607) in 1608. And Acadia was initially part of New France ( - even primary sources indicate its mention by royal charter in 1604.
If you really wanted to get historical, technically, Pierre de Chauvin de Tonnetuit, had a settlement in Tadoussac, Quebec as of 1600.
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And even if it did, the artifact was captured during British Rule, not Canadian, and thus Canadian history as an argument is still not valid.
In "Canadian" history, inhabitants of both "New France" and "British North America" (Quebec, then Upper and Lower Canada) are seen as "Canadian". This is "Canadian" history, hence its inclusion in the Canadian War Museum
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All I was trying to say is that his argument is a poor one for a number of reasons that could be easily challenged if one wanted to take this to the canadian courts. The other thing I was trying to say is that if by some remote chance anybody would be getting this given away, the Acadians in Nova Scotia would hold just as much right, if not more, then Quebec for having it in their possession, if they were so inclined to fight for it.
I don't agree with his agenda (although i've yet to see his history proven incorrect). But why would Acadians have "just as much right, if not more" to a French Royal Coat of Arms than any other Canadians? In 1759, Acadia, simply wasn't a part of New France - Quebec City was the symbolic centre for many Canadiens. Besides, didn't the Treaty of Utrech (1713), cut Acadia lose (to the British) long before the Plains of Abraham anyway? That tends to diminish your supposition's historicity.
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Not that I really care either way.... melt the thing for scrap for all I care.
Evidently others feel differently